… when was the last time capitalism led to mass starvation and death? Every famine I’m aware of since 1950 has been the cause of either war, recurring environmental issues that have resulted in famines across multiple economic systems, or government mismanagement.
The rest is correct, but the mass starvation and death is a very curious insertion.
Also curious that it’s not really a cycle, since the ‘free’ market is never disestablished or interrupted in the cycle despite being ‘established’ again at the top of the cycle.
(1) It is unlikely that 90% of the human population lived in extreme poverty prior to the 19th century. Historically, unskilled urban labourers in all regions tended to have wages high enough to support a family of four above the poverty line by working 250 days or 12 months a year, except during periods of severe social dislocation, such as famines, wars, and institutionalized dispossession – particularly under colonialism
This is utterly insane and against every serious study of premodern economics I’m aware of.
Capitalism directly causes poverty, and the starvation of at least 9 million people worldwide per year.
Considering that most deaths by starvation and malnutrition are in areas where capitalism is weak to begin with…?
Every serious study of pre modern economics that I have seen supports that premise. Homelessness and starvation when famine isn’t present didn’t exist anywhere before capitalism. Hell, even Adam Smith said that it would be necessary to switch off of capitalism to something more equitable once certain economic milestones had been achieved. We achieved those milestones in the mid 1850s to 1870s by the latest.
Every serious study of pre modern economics that I have seen supports that premise. Homelessness and starvation when famine isn’t present didn’t exist anywhere before capitalism.
And he spoke to the ultra-impoverished, discussed hunger outside of the context of famines as a serious problem, and was homeless.
But hey! Historical evidence doesn’t matter when there’s an ideological axe to grind. Facts are twisted to suit ideological conceptions, not ideological conceptions changed to suit facts, right?
He spoke to the poor. There were no ultra impoverished. That category didn’t exist based on historical evidence. He spoke to hunger, not starvation outside of famine.
We don’t know if he had a home, he probably did, but just kinda abandoned it.
He spoke to the poor. There were no ultra impoverished. He spoke to hunger, not starvation outside of famine.
People in the ancient world often sold themselves into slavery to stay alive.
People don’t sell themselves into fucking slavery because they’re only moderately impoverished and fear just being a little bit hungry.
The idea that there was no extreme poverty in the ancient world is utterly bizarre and against everything we know about ancient societies and economies.
We don’t know if he had a home, he probably did, but just kinda abandoned it.
… when was the last time capitalism led to mass starvation and death? Every famine I’m aware of since 1950 has been the cause of either war, recurring environmental issues that have resulted in famines across multiple economic systems, or government mismanagement.
The rest is correct, but the mass starvation and death is a very curious insertion.
Also curious that it’s not really a cycle, since the ‘free’ market is never disestablished or interrupted in the cycle despite being ‘established’ again at the top of the cycle.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0305750X22002169
Capitalism directly causes poverty, and the starvation of at least 9 million people worldwide per year.
This is utterly insane and against every serious study of premodern economics I’m aware of.
Considering that most deaths by starvation and malnutrition are in areas where capitalism is weak to begin with…?
Every serious study of pre modern economics that I have seen supports that premise. Homelessness and starvation when famine isn’t present didn’t exist anywhere before capitalism. Hell, even Adam Smith said that it would be necessary to switch off of capitalism to something more equitable once certain economic milestones had been achieved. We achieved those milestones in the mid 1850s to 1870s by the latest.
Jesus fucking Christ.
He was also a communist. He literally told his followers to go live in communes.
And he spoke to the ultra-impoverished, discussed hunger outside of the context of famines as a serious problem, and was homeless.
But hey! Historical evidence doesn’t matter when there’s an ideological axe to grind. Facts are twisted to suit ideological conceptions, not ideological conceptions changed to suit facts, right?
He spoke to the poor. There were no ultra impoverished. That category didn’t exist based on historical evidence. He spoke to hunger, not starvation outside of famine.
We don’t know if he had a home, he probably did, but just kinda abandoned it.
Try actually reading Adam Smith
People in the ancient world often sold themselves into slavery to stay alive.
People don’t sell themselves into fucking slavery because they’re only moderately impoverished and fear just being a little bit hungry.
The idea that there was no extreme poverty in the ancient world is utterly bizarre and against everything we know about ancient societies and economies.
“he probably did”
Jesus fucking Christ.
I have read Adam Smith, ffs. Have you?
Keep crying to your lord. Keeps you free from reality.
Happens all the time. Many ongoing famines right now. Gotta be delusional AF to believe otherwise. No surprise considering the user.
“The famine in the Gaza Strip is caused by capitalism” is one hell of a fucking take.
Removed by mod
Jesus Christ.
Cry out to the lord when you have no response to reality.