I think he was served papers at one point around the 3-4 year mark, but just told the hospital he wasn’t going to pay since they already had agreed in writing he didn’t have to pay. He never went to court. I don’t know the exact process, it was never explained to my brother in law, but given they had a valid, unpaid bill of 8 years (and multiple attempts to get him to pay on record) was enough?
How did they garnish his wages without having a court involved? They would had to have sued him already in court.
I think he was served papers at one point around the 3-4 year mark, but just told the hospital he wasn’t going to pay since they already had agreed in writing he didn’t have to pay. He never went to court. I don’t know the exact process, it was never explained to my brother in law, but given they had a valid, unpaid bill of 8 years (and multiple attempts to get him to pay on record) was enough?
Yeah, that’s a default judgement then. If you’re served, you need to respond, or else the judge declares in favor of the plaintiff.
Sure, I understand that the judge didn’t do anything wrong, but the hospital was wrong to even try garnishing wages in the first place
You’ll get no disagreement from me, the system is broken.