- cross-posted to:
- politics@lemmy.world
- cross-posted to:
- politics@lemmy.world
She has been arguing that, as a Christian, she should not have to follow state rules about judicial impartiality.
A Texas judge is asking a federal court to overturn marriage equality in the U.S., arguing in a lawsuit filed on Friday that marriage for same-sex couples is unconstitutional because it was legalized in a decision that “subordinat[ed] state law to the policy preferences of unelected judges.”
The case involves Judge Dianne Hensley of Waco, Texas, who has been involved in years of legal proceedings to try to win the right to not perform marriages for same-sex couples while still performing them for opposite-sex couples. She claims that, as a Christian, she should not have to follow state judicial ethics rules about impartiality.



I think that that would open a can of worms well beyond this issue, considering that religion in general can tell adherents to do things that aren’t mandated by secular law.
I also have a pretty difficult time swallowing this in that any Christian mandate isn’t on not performing marriages, but on not engaging in homosexual sex yourself. “I don’t want to facilitate people in doing things that would be prohibited them if they belonged to my own religion” seems like a pretty wildly unreasonably broad reading of any sort of freedom to practice religion on the judge’s part. If she herself was obligated by the job to participate in lesbian sex, okay, then I could see her maybe having an argument for some kind of exemption.
What happens if you have, say, Muslim building inspectors? Are they allowed to not approve a meat-packing plant because it processes pork and if the people who are eating its output were Muslims, as the inspector is, they’d be violating rules of their religion? I mean, that’s on par with what she’s asking for.
EDIT:
I’d also add that her argument didn’t work for Masterpiece Cakeshop v. Colorado Civil Rights Commission, and there it was just a private business, not a public official. Ermold v. Davis seems like it’d even more clearly establish a precedent that her argument doesn’t work.
EDIT2: Well, okay, there’s that one Old Testament verse somewhere about how you have to execute practicing homosexuals. That’s the extent to which I can think of the Bible having a mandate regarding someone else engaging in homosexual sex. But even without looking at her complaint, I am very sure that the argument she is trying to make is not “I should be excused from not executing practicing homosexuals”.
searches
Leviticus 20:10-16: